Team number________
 

Team name__________________
 

Team Members______________________________________
 

You will have 4 minutes at each of 12 stations. There are 71 questions for a total of 100 points. All questions are worth one point unless indicated by (). You may not return to any station. Provide only the information requested; in most cases this will be either a number, a letter or at most three words. Use the attached answer sheet for all answers. The attached blank sheets of paper are for calculations. DO NOT WRITE ON THE QUESTIONS OR MOVE THEM.
 

For questions asking for a probability, PROVIDE THE ANSWER AS FRACTION THAT HAS BEEN REDUCED TO LOWEST TERMS. NO CREDIT FOR DECIMALS OR UNREDUCED FRACTIONS.
 

Circle the station at which you started.
 

Make certain that we check off your school as you leave.
 

Good luck and happy Mendeling!
 
 
 
 
 

Station 1

Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder; albinism is an autosomal recessive trait; absence of molars is an X-linked dominant trait; brachdactyly (webbing between fingers) is an autosomal dominant.
 

1-5. For the following situations, 1-5, listed below, choose one of the following letters as your answer. Use capital letters.
 

A: The child in question can be the child of the individuals listed.

B. The child in question is likely from the woman listed but from a man different than the one listed.

C. The child in question can not belong to either person indicated.
 

Only phenotypes of parents are indicated; do not invoke mutations in your thinking.
 

1. A normal man and a normal woman have a hemophiliac son

.

2. An albino man and an albino woman have a normal pigmented daughter.
 

3. A man without molars and a woman with molars have a son without molars.
 

4. A normal man and a normal woman have an albino, hemophiliac daughter.
 

5. A man and woman, each with brachydactyly, have a normal son with respect to webbing.
 
 
 
 
 

Station 2
 

PKU, maple sugar urine disease (MSUD), and cystic fibrosis (CF) are each independent autosomal recessive human disorders.
 

6. A normal woman whose father had PKU marries a man with PKU. What is the probability that this couple's first child will be normal with regard to PKU?
 

7. A normal man and a normal woman have a child with MSUD. What is the probability that the next child will also have MSUD?
 

8. If two normal individuals, but each carriers for the above three disorders, mate, what is the probability that their first child will have PKU and cystic fibrosis, but be normal for MSUD? (2)
 

9-10 Achondroplasia is a type of dwarfism. Two dwarfs marry and have a dwarf child then a normal child.
 

9. Is dwarfism dominant or recessive?
 

10. What is the probability that their next child will be normal?

Station 3
 

In tomatoes, one allelic pair determines purple or green stem and another independent pair determines cut or potato leaves. The following crosses are performed using 8 different plants, and the kinds of progeny produced appear in the table.

Progeny

cross number	parental phenotypes	purple, cut	purple, potato	green, cut	green, potato
1	purple, cut  X  green, cut	321	101	310	107
2	purple, cut  X  purple, potato	219	207	64	71
3	purple, cut  X  green, cut	722	231	0	0
4	purple, cut  X  green, potato	404	0	387	0

 

11. Which allele, purple or green, is dominant?
 

12. Provide the number of ONE cross that allowed you to deduce your answer to question 11.
 

13. Which allele, cut or potato, is recessive?
 

14. Provide the number of ONE cross that allowed you to deduce your answer to question 13.
 

15. What is the genotype of the purple, cut individual in cross 4? (2)
 

16. What is the genotype of the purple, cut individual in cross 1? (2)
 
 
 

Station 4
 

17. In chickens, C-ii is colored, C-I-,is white, and ccii and ccI- are also white. If two double heterozygotes are mated, what fraction of the progeny is expected to be white? (2)
 
 
 

18-19 In horses, there are three independent color producing genes. WW is lethal, Ww is white, regardless of what other alleles are present, and ww allows color. OO or Oo is solid, oo has white spots on color. BB or Bb is black, bb is chestnut. Two horses, each heterozygous for all three genes, are mated.
 

18. What is the phenotype of the heterozygous individuals?
 

19. Of the LIVING progeny, what fraction is expected to be black with white spots?(2)
 

20. A circular plasmid contains genes for resistance for tetracycline, ampicillin, and chloramphenicol. This plasmid contains single sites for four different restriction enzymes, A, B, C, D. The plasmid is cut with each enzyme and a foreign piece of DNA is inserted into each site. A circular plasmid contains genes for resistance for tetracycline, ampicillin, and chloramphenicol. This plasmid contains single sites for four different restriction enzymes, A, B, C, D. The plasmid is cut with each enzyme and a foreign piece of DNA is inserted into each site. (If DNA is inserted to a gene for resistance, the resistance is lost). The hybrid plasmid is then incorporated into bacteria, and antibiotic sensitivity is determined. The results appear below (R==resistant, s=sensitive)
 

enzyme	ampicillin	tetracycline	chloramphenicol
A	R	S	R
B	S	R	R
C	R	R	R
D	R	R	S

 

What is the location of site for enzyme D? (2)

Station 5
 

21. When true brown breeding dogs are mated with true breeding white dogs, all the pups are white. When the F1s are allowed to self, the following appear in the F2:

118 white

32 black

10 brown
 

Which of the following statements best describes this genetic situation. Use a capital letter, A, B, C, or D, as your answer. (2)
 

A. AA= white, Aa = black, aa = brown F1 cross is Aa X Aa

B. W-B- = white, W-bb = white, wwB- = black, wwbb = brown

F1 cross is WwBb X WwBb

C. White =x-linked dominant, black/brown is autosomal, and black is dominant

D. W-B- = white, wwB- and W-bb = black, wwbb =brown

F1 cross is WwBb X WwBb
 

22-24.

The M, N, and MN blood groups are determined by two co-dominant alleles, M and N. The Rh+ phenotype is caused by the presence of the dominant R allele of a different gene.
 

The following phenotypic data were presented during a recent trial for a paternity suit.
 

Husband: 0 M Rh+

Wife's lover AB MN Rh-

Wife A N Rh+

child 1 0 MN Rh+

child 2 A N Rh+

child 3 A MN Rh-
 

For each child, provide the most likely father. You answers should be husband, lover, or can't tell.
 

22. Child 1 (2)

23. Child 2 (2)

24. Child 3 (2)

Station 6
 

A person has a genetic disorder of the immune system. White blood cells from an affected person are removed, and the cells are then mixed with DNA from a normal individual. The cells are then returned to the person with the disease. Use words, not sentences, as answers. Be as brief as possible.
 

25. What term is used to describe the above procedure?
 

26. If the defect in the diseased individual is corrected, will the offspring of this person still stand a chance of getting the disease? Answer yes, no, or can't tell.
 

27. The DNA from the normal individual is cut into pieces by a particular kind of enzyme. What kind of enzyme is used?
 

28. What is unique about this type of enzyme?
 

29. After the DNA is cut into many fragments, what procedure is used to separate the fragments?
 

30. What procedure is used to identify the fragment that contains the normal gene?
 

31. What term describes a situation in which an allele inherited from one parent shows a different phenotype when the allele is inherited from the other parent?
 

32. All of the following statements about mitochondrial DNA are true EXCEPT
 

A. It is circular.

B. It usually contains fewer than 100,000 base pairs.

C. It codes for all the enzymes of the electron transport chain.

D. Mutations in it often produce signs of weakness in the individual.
 

33. Mitochondrial DNA is always inherited from the mother because

A. There are more mitochondria in an egg than there are in a sperm.

B. The mitochondria in the sperm are destroyed after fertilization.

C. The genomes of the female mitochondria are much more uniform than those of the male.

D. Only the nucleus from the sperm ends up inside the egg at fertilization.
 

Station 7
 

The following questions refer to the karyotypes A-F.
 

34. Which karyotype represents a normal male?

35. Which karyotype represents a woman with Down's syndrome?

36. What is the apparent sex of individual with karyotype C?

37. What is the sex of the individual in karyotype E?

38. What is the name of the syndrome associated with karyotype E?

39. What karyotype will reveal no Barr bodies?
 
 
 

Station 8
 

40-43. Provide four different conditions that must be met for a population to be in Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium.
 

Indicate whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F).
 

44. If two normal individuals have three children, each of whom is affected by the same genetic disorder, the probability that their fourth child will also have the disorder is less than 1/10.
 

45. If two individuals, each with the same dominant trait, mate, all of the children will be expected to have the trait.
 

46. An X-linked recessive trait will be passed from father to all of his sons.
 

47. Because females have two X chromosome, X linked traits are more likely to be expressed in females.
 

48. An X-linked dominant trait will be passed from an affected male to all his daughters.
 

49. A karyotypic analysis of a developing fetus will reveal if it has a disorder such as Tay-Sachs, cystic fibrosis, or sickle cell anemia.
 

50. If a population is not in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, it will achieve equilibrium in the next generation is selection is not occurring.
 

51. If all the homozygous recessive individuals die each generation, the recessive allele will be eliminated from the population within 3 generations.

Station 9
 

When constructing a pedigree, males are indicated by squares and females by circles. Individuals with a particular disorder are shaded. Lines between two members of the opposite sex indicate a conjugal union to produce offspring. Individuals may not necessarily be homozygous. There are four basic modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked dominant, and X-linked recessive
 

----
 

---- ---
 
 
 
 

52-53 What two modes of inheritance are IMPOSSIBLE for the trait in the above pedigree? Place one answer at each number. Choose among the following modes of inheritance for you answers:
 

autosomal dominant autosomal recessive
 

X-linked dominant X-linked recessive
 

DO NOT SAY SEX LINKED ... Answers saying sex linked will be counted wrong
 

54-56 In Drosophila, yellow body is an X-linked recessive allele, and brown eyes is an autosomal recessive allele. The respective dominant alleles are tan and red.
 

A true breeding yellow, body, brown eyed male is mated with a true breeding tan bodied, red eyed female.
 

54. What is (are) the phenotype(s) of the F1 females? (2)
 

55. What is (are) the phenotype (s) of the F1 males? (2)
 

56. If the F1s are allowed to mate, what (is) are the phenotype(s) of the F2 females? (2)
 

57. Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait in humans. A normal visioned woman whose father was color blind marries a normal visioned man. They have a color blind daughter who has only one X chromosome. In which parent did the sex chromosomes fail to separate? (2)
 
 
 
 
 

Station 10
 

In a population there are

49 AA

42 Aa

9 aa
 

58. What is p, the frequency of the "A" allele in this population? (2)

59. What is q, the frequency of the "a" allele in this population? (2)
 

60. In humans, tongue rolling is dominant over non-rolling. On the OSU campus, 16 out of every 10,000 students are non-rollers. What is the frequency of the rolling allele on the OSU campus? (3)
 
 
 

61. The sequence of a 50 base sequence from the gene for testis specific protein Y is determined for a number of different primates. The number of differences between each pair of organisms appears in the table below

	human	chimp	gorilla	orangutan	baboon
human	0	1	3	7	12
chimp	1	0	2	5	10
gorilla	3	2	0	4	10
orangutan	7	5	4	0	9
baboon	12	10	10	9	0

 

According to the chart, gorillas are most closely related to which other primate? Use capital letter as your answer.
 

A. Humans

B. Baboons

C. Chimps

D. Orangutans

Station 11
 

62-64 Pertain to the following cross.
 

Aa Bb CC Dd Ee X aa Bb cc Dd ee
 

62. What fraction of the progeny is expected to show all dominant traits? (2)
 

63. What fraction of the progeny is expected to show all recessive traits? (2)
 

64. What fraction of the progeny is expected to be heterozygous for all five genes? (3)
 

65. You cross a plant that is AABB with one that is aabb. The F1s are selfed to produce F2s. What is the probability that the F2 plant will contain one half of its alleles from each grandparent? (2)
 

66. Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait in humans. Two heterozygotes mate. What is the probability that both of their kids will be albino?
 
 
 

Station 12
 

67. Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive trait. A normal woman whose father had galactosemia marries a normal man whose grandmother had galactosemia. What is the probability that the first child will have galactosemia? (3)
 

68. Given the following gene to gene distances. Determine a complete map that includes all genes and the distances between each pair of genes. (2)
 

O-R 3 map units

M-R 7 map units

G-O 8 map units

M-G 12 units
 

69-71
 

The Smiths, Stevensons, and Jones's all had babies on the same day, but unfortunately, the babies were mixed up in the nursery. The results from DNA fingerprints appear below.
 

69. Which child belongs to the Smiths? (2)
 

70. Which child belongs to the Stevensons? (2)
 

71. Which child belongs to the Jones's? (2)
 

1-3 Pertain to this information
 

Newly fertilized sea urchin eggs were incubated in radioactive thymidine for 30 minutes. At the end of this time, the embryos are collected, exposed to photographic emulsion, and then examined with a light microscope. Thirty-five (35% of the cells have darkened areas over the nucleus.
 

1. Radioactive thymidine is used to determine if the cells were synthesizing
 

E. Membranes

F. DNA

G. RNA

H. Protein
 

2. If radioactive phospholipids had been used instead of thymidine, the synthesis of what molecule/structure would have been examined?
 

A. Membranes

B. DNA

C. RNA

D. Protein
 

3. If the cell cycle of the sea urchin is 10 hrs long, what is the approximate length of the S phase?
 

A. 110 minutes

B. 210 minutes

C. 400 minutes

D. 600 minutes
 

8-9 The gene for dystrophin, a muscle protein, is 2.1 x 10⁶ base pairs long.
 

8. If all these bases were used in the coding sequence, approximately how many amino acids could be coded by this gene?
 

A. 7.0 x 10⁵

B. 1.4 x 10⁶

C. 2.1 x 10⁶

D. 6.3 x 10⁶
 

9. If the rate of transcription is 50 bases/sec, approximately how long will it take the cell to make the RNA fro dystrophin?
 

A. 12 min

B. 1 hr

C. 12 hr

D. 36 hr
 

33-35. The skin cells of an organism have 42 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would you expect to see in
 

33. Liver cells________ A. 21

B. 42

34. Sperm cells_______ C. 63

D. 94

35. Nerve cells________
 
 
 

49-50.

49. What process is indicated by the following figure?
 

A. Mitosis

B. Meiosis I

C. Meiosis II

D. Either Meiosis I or Meiosis II
 

50. Refer to the following stages of mitosis in the figure to the right. What sequence of cells represents the chronological sequence of events that occur during mitosis?
 

A. A, B, C, D

B. A, C, B, D

C. B, A D, C

D. B, C, D, A
 

58. The double stranded DNA below represents the beginning of a gene that codes for a protein with at least 7 amino acids.
 

TAC ATG ATC ATT TCA CGG AAT TTC TAG CAT GTA

ATG TAC TAG TAA AGT GCC TTA AAG ATC GTA CAT
 

Which strand is made into mRNA, and in which direction is the mRNA read by the ribosome?
 

A. top strand, message read left to right

B. top strand, message read right to left

C. bottom strand, message read from left to right

D. bottom strand, message read from right to left
 

67-69

67. Using the genetic code, determine the sequence of amino acids made from the following messenger RNA.

*

AUG CCC AAA CAG UGC GAG CUU ACG
 

A. met-pro-lys-his- cys-glu-leu-thr

B. met-pro-lys-gln- cys-glu-leu-thr

C. ala-phe-glu-arg-asp-lys-pro-val

D. ala-phe-gln-arg-asp-lys-pro-val
 

68. What will be the consequence f the A indicated by * is changed to U?
 

A. One amino acid will be changed

B. Many amino acids will be changed.

C. The protein will have only 2 amino acids

D. The protein will have only 5 amino acids.
 

69. What will the consequence be if a C is added just prior to the A*?
 

A. Many subsequent amino acids will be changed.

B. Only one amino acid will be changed.

C. No amino acids will be changed.

D. The protein will be shorter than normal.
 

77-78

77. A DNA molecule is 35% guanine. What per cent of the bases is adenine?
 

A. 15%

B. 35%

C. 65%

D. 70%
 

78. An RNA molecule has 150 bases. What is the maximum number of amino acids that could be encoded by this mRNA?
 

A. 50

B. 100

C. 150

D. 450